I am wondering what the difference of changing “one in being with the Father” to “consubstantial” is in the Creed? Don’t get me wrong, I’m all for being in line with the original Latin and most precise
translation. However, I go to a more liberal “Catholic” university and many people are attacking that translation call, even the priest ( who “accidentally” preached Dec 8 was Jesus’conception). I just want to have something to answer them with that reflects the Tradition of the Holy Mother Church. Thank you!
You may have answered your own question.
The people who don’t get the significance of the change from “one in being” to “consubstantial” are the same kinds of people who would confuse the Immaculate Conception.
That is how much they grasp or pay attention to Catholic doctrine.
The real problem is that, just as those imbued with Modernism 2.0 – Modernism Lite – they are not paying attention to doctrine. “Accidently”, my eye.
It just doesn’t matter enough to them to want to get it right.